Plural marriage was announced as an official doctrine of the LDS church in 1852. Although not cannonized as Doctrine and Covenants Sec 132 until 1876 it nonetheless became the pivot point of 19th century Mormonism until it’s reluctant abandonment near the end of the century. The apologists tell us that all is in order and that Joseph carried out plural marriage in accordance with sec 132 however, many reasonable people read sec 132 and are left bewildered of the disconnect between how Joseph practiced plural marriage and the guidelines laid out by God. Could there be another explanation?

Bill Reel